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Yes, as I explained above. But it's also true that building in an exemption from tariffs imposed from without is not quite the same as imposing a trade barrier (which is what the Supremes have adjudicated). Is that a distinction that makes enough of a distinction? My intuition is no, but I haven't thought about it.I'm confident that's not constitutional... But I've been really wrong recently.
The source of the trade power being federal is the idea that foreign policy and international trade are generally committed to the executive branch, and state trade barriers could (and indeed in many cases would) undermine American policies. But let's suppose Newsom manages to convince China not to tariff almonds grown in California. How would that undermine any federal policy? If China wanted to gift Oregon $300M, would Oregon really be required to refuse the offer? Maybe, but it's not as clear as the reverse case.